|The Concept of Sinlessness and Sinfulness in the First Letter of John|
So, there is indeed a paradox here in 1John. But this antinomy is, I would say, a part of Christianity itself a paradox? Is it not the encounter of the Divine with the humanity a paradox? Isn't the encounter of the infinite with the finite, the Perfect with the imperfect a paradox? Is it not the encounter of the Sinless with the sinful One wishes to draw to Himself humanity not by using magic and making them automatically sinless, but by their own consent.